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I got this question through Becker:
Question:
As a result of tests of controls, an auditor assessed control risk too low and decreased substantive testing. This assessment occurred because the true deviation rate in the population was:
Answer:
More than the deviation rate in the auditor’s sample
I dont understand why you would decrease substantive testing if your “true deviation” was higher than the deviation rate in the sample.
I would think that you would increase substantive testing because your true deviation rate was higher than expected…wouldn’t you want to get more comfort from substantive testing then?
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