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Can someone explain why you would not subtract the salvage value from the base cost of the investment in computing annual depreciation?
For example, a company purchases a new machine for $456,000 with a 5 year life and estimated salvage value of $7,000.
The annual depreciation amount is $91,200 ($456,000/5 years). My intuition is that the annual depreciation would be $89,800 ($456,000 -$7,000)/5.
Is ignored because salvage value is ignored in computing depreciation for tax purposes?
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