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Hi everyone. Just a quick conceptual question regarding the direct materials usage variance. I understand the math and the steps to calculate the variance, however I don’t understand the theory behind it. With the DM Price variance, we are calculating a difference in real dollars (Change in actual purchase price from standard * actual units purchased). In my example the price changed from a standard of $10 to actual of $8. However with DM Usage, I don’t understand why standard costs are even considered.
I see how a change in actual quantity used vs. standard usage for that level of production can create a variance, but why multiply that unit difference against standard cost? Assuming there was a price variance, that standard cost never happened in the real world. Wouldn’t multiplying the change in qty used with ACTUAL unit price give a dollar amount that is more relevant?
What am I missing? Thanks!
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