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I just took a Wiley mcq that stated the first payment on january 1, year 2 was “end of year” and therefore an ordinary annuity.. is this because the beginning of year 2 is the same as being the end of year 1? Am I just confusing myself?
On January 1, year 1, Robert Harrison signed an agreement to operate as a franchisee of Perfect Pizza, Inc. for an initial franchise fee of $40,000. Of this amount, $15,000 was paid when the agreement was signed and the balance is payable in five annual payments of $5,000 each beginning January 1, year 2. The agreement provides that the down payment is not refundable and no future services are required of the franchisor. Harrison’s credit rating indicates that he can borrow money at 12% for a loan of this type. Information on present and future value factors is as follows:
Present value of $1 at 12% for 5 periods .567
Future amount of $1 at 12% for 5 periods 1.762
Present value of an ordinary annuity of $1 at 12% for 5 periods 3.605
Harrison should record the acquisition cost of the franchise on January 1, year 1, at:
$33,025
This answer is correct. The acquisition cost is equal to the $15,000 down payment plus the present value of the $25,000 loan. The loan is payable in 5 equal installments of $5,000 at the end of each year (ordinary annuity).
Down payment on 1/1/Y1 $15,000
Present value of ordinary annuity ($5,000 × 3.605) 18,025
Total acquisition cost $33,025
FAR - 89 (8/19/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Books from School, Ninja Audio/Notes
AUD - 92 (10/14/14) Wiley TB, Wiley Book, Ninja Audio
BEC - 82 (5/8/15) Mostly Ninja MCQ, sprinkles of Becker lectures and Ninja Audio
REG - (8/14/15)
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