Quick question regarding contribtuions to partnerships......kind of a three part question.....I just want to see if my logic here is correct....seems like the material says one way and then contradicts itself.....just hoping for a little clarification
If I contribute an asset for a 25% partnership interest, I use my cost basis to calculate
$20,000 - Basis
$50,000 - FMV
My basis would be $5,000.....right?
Does the asset transfer to the partership based on the Basis of $20,000 or the FMV of $50,000
Also if I have a partnership basis of $65,000....I receive a liquidating distribution of $15,000 cash and $35,000 property.....should I not have a $15,000 capital gain and a $35,000 basis in the property....because the answers states a $0 gain and a $50,000 base in asset........just wondering how you have a basis in an asset greater than its value?
Thanks for any help
Vukz
AUD (76)
BEC (75)
REG (72), (80)





