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So Wiley covers this fairly well, but they make no mention of the situation where the outside basis exceeds inside basis when there’s real estate involved. I understand if the land exceeds outside basis, the partner’s basis will be reduced to zero and whatever the reduction was becomes the basis in the land.
What if outside basis is 10,000, land with a basis of 5,000 and FMV of 6,000 is transferred in a liquidating distribution? Will the basis in the land become 10,000 and it’s essentially transferring a built-in loss?
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