Quick question regarding EPS calculation

  • Creator
    Topic
  • #199731
    bigbuk
    Member

    In regards to the numerator, i understand it is NI-Preferred Dividends. My question is, i have seen several times the question state something like; Big Co. paid pref. dividends for 16,000 in x1. But in the substance of the question will be; preferred cum. stock for $10 par, 4%, 25,000 shares issued and outstanding. My question is why would i not use the statement that they paid the dividends for 16,000 but i would use the 10,000 (25,000 x 4% x 10) ? Im assuming it has to do with the stock being cumulative, but as i understand it, it keeps accumulating until they make a declaration on it. thanks

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  • #756123
    bigbuk
    Member

    bump

    #756124
    MaLoTu
    Participant

    It feels like a long time since I studied FAR (2 weeks), but is it because NI subtracted is what is declared or suppose to be paid and we are to ignore what they actually paid?

    I am sorry I cannot give you a more conclusive answer, but this is what I remember and I am not sure if it will help you or not.

    Almost always from my phone... please excuse my typos!

    All 4 passed - 2016

    CA CPA

    #756125
    marqzho
    Participant

    Matching principle.

    if amount “paid” is used in the calculation, you could have a lower Earning per share just because you paid dividend for a previous period.

    REG 90
    FAR 95
    AUD 98
    BEC 84

    #756126
    Claudia408
    Participant

    @marqzho – where u been? have you taken FAR yet?

    BEC 65, 71, 75
    AUD 62, 70, 78
    REG 67, 66, 65, 66, 64
    FAR 68, 64, 73

    BEC - 75 (3x)
    AUD - 78 (3x)
    REG - 67, 66, Aug 1
    FAR - 54, Sept 8

    #756127
    Kairos
    Participant

    I think it might help if the question was posted but if i'm understanding correctly, you're asking why not use the amount $16,000 (the amount paid) as opposed to the $10,000 (20X2 dividends owed) in the EPS calculation?

    The $16,000 paid is a distractor and in this case, 2 years worth of dividends are accrued and not paid (so that would be $20,000 accrued)

    because the payment is only $16,000, which isn't enough to cover the full $20,000, the numerator in the EPS calculation would just be 500,000 – 10,000

    on the other hand if management declared a $25,000 dividend, the numerator for the EPS calculation would be 500,000 – 10,000 – 5,000 where you're subtracting the 5,000 excess (25,000 – 20,000)

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