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NINJA Question –
Hello all,
I understand the calculation involved with the following question. But, I’m not sure why, once sold after distributed, that the inventory distributed yields a Ordinary Gain while the land distributed yielded a Capital Loss. Please explain why the inventory is Ordinary.
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The CSU partnership distributed to each partner cash of $4,000, inventory with a basis of $4,000 and a fair market value (FMV) of $6,000, and land with an adjusted basis of $5,000 and an FMV of $3,000 in a liquidating distribution. Partner Chang had an outside basis in Chang’s partnership interest of $12,000. In the second year after receiving the liquidating distribution, Chang sold the inventory for $5,000 and the land for $3,000. What income must Chang report upon the sale of these assets?
A) $0 gain or loss
B) $0 ordinary gain and $1,000 capital loss
C) $1,000 ordinary gain $1,000 capital loss [correct answer]
D) $1,000 ordinary gain $0 capital loss
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I know: you take the 12,000 owner/partnership basis and allocate to (1) 4,000 cash; (2) 4,000 A/B inventory; and (3) [plug] Land. Of course, there is no Loss here because you can’t receive any prop other than cash, inventory and A/R.
Subsequent Sale of the distributed Inventory is SP 5000 – Basis (above) 4000 = 1,000 Gain.
Subsequent Sale of the distributed Land is SP 3000 – Basis (plug) 4000 = 1,000 Loss
What I don’t know: Why is the Gain associated with the Inventory is ORDINARY, while the Loss associated with the Land is CAPITAL.
Going forward is there a timing issue, eg. certain assets (not land apparently) that are sold w/i X years of distribution aren’t capital?
I’d appreciate it if you could explain it before my May 10 REG exam. Yes, the best work is left to the last minute.
Thanks again!
AUD - 90
BEC - 79
FAR - 77
REG - 77They don't trust JUST ANYBODY to count beans
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