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Hi guys, been using the forum and some ninja tools for a month now, but first time posting.
I was wondering if someone can shed some light on a small detail that just keeps bothering me.
Why do we use expected rate of return of plan asset when the calculation for pension expense is done end of year and we know the actual return of plan asset. Is there a logical explanation to that, am i missing something, or is it just one of those it is how it is things.
Thanks for help in advance.
FAR - 87 - 08/2015
AUD - 11/2015
REG - 05/2016
BEC - 08/2016
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