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July 2, 2016 at 9:55 pm #203375
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July 12, 2016 at 3:14 am #784913thebigguy1992Participant
Tulip Co. owns 100% of Daisy Co.'s outstanding common stock. Tulip's cost of goods sold for the year totals $600,000 and Daisy's cost of goods sold totals $400,000. During the year, Tulip sold inventory costing $60,000 to Daisy for $100,000. By the end of the year, all transferred inventory was sold to third parties. What amount should be reported as cost of goods sold in the consolidated statement of income?
$900,000
$940,000
$960,000
$1,000,000Is the answer 900,000 because combined COGS is 1,000,000 but you have to eliminate the 100k because it is inter-revenue profits? or is it eliminate it because it is intracompany COGS?
BEC - 79
FAR - 62,73,76
AUD - 70, 88
REG - 83July 12, 2016 at 3:15 am #784914jmc0434Participant@Dlu
Good luck tomorrow!! You are going to do great!
BEC - 79
AUD - 89
REG - 80
FAR - 7/19/16July 12, 2016 at 4:05 am #784915thebigguy1992Participantanyone know the answer explanation and how they got the answer to #11?
https://www.another71.com/wp-content/files/2016_AICPA_FAR_Difficult_62132.pdf
thats the FAR difficult AICPA released 2016 questions
BEC - 79
FAR - 62,73,76
AUD - 70, 88
REG - 83July 12, 2016 at 1:05 pm #784916KJParticipant@ DLu
1. Dr Gain 21
Cr Accum Depr 8
Cr Equip 6
Cr Depr exp 73. Dr Bonds Payable 100K
Dr Discount on Bonds 9
Cr Gains 9
Cr Investment in bonds 100KGood luck with your exam, you got this!!!
"Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler" - Albert EinsteinFAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
July 12, 2016 at 1:55 pm #784917jmc0434ParticipantI keep spinning my wheels on this question and I can't get to the right answer. Can someone tell me how they got the answer?
On January 1, year 1, Boston Group issued $100,000 par value, 5% five-year bonds when the market
rate of interest was 8%. Interest is payable annually on December 31. The following present value
information is available:Present value of $1 (n = 5) @ 5% = 0.78353
Present value of $1 (n = 5) @ 8% = 0.68058
Present value of an ordinary annuity (n = 5) @ 5% = 4.32948
Present value of an ordinary annuity (n = 5) @ 8% = 3.99271What amount is the value of net bonds payable at the end of year 1?
$88,022
$90,064
$100,000
$110,638Correct Answer: 90,064
BEC - 79
AUD - 89
REG - 80
FAR - 7/19/16July 12, 2016 at 2:19 pm #784918Titleistg0lferParticipant@jmc0434, I think I can help you with this. So they are asking for the BP at the end of the year not the beginning of the year using “Effective Interest Method” since you know the Actual rate and Market Rate. You would calculate this as follows:
To first calculate initial debt, you always calculate as PV of Outstanding debt + PV of Interest Payments
100,000 x .68058 = 68,058 and (100,000 x .05 = 5,000) — 5,000 x 3.99271 = 19,964
68,058 + 19,964 = 88,022
This would be your answer if it was asking at the beginning of the year, but since it's asking for the end you have to add back the amortization on the discount as such:
100,000 x .05 = 5,000 vs 88,022 x .08 = 7,042 = 7,042 – 5,000 = 2,042
So your answer would be 88,022 + 2,042 = 90,064
In journal entry form it would look like this:
1/1
Cash 88,022
Discount on BP 11,978
Bonds Payable 100,00012/31
Interest Expense 7,042
Amortization of Discount 2,042
Interest Payable/Cash 5,000REG: 84 (10/5/15)
AUD: 83 (11/23/15)
BEC: 77 (2/27/16) - The bubble sucks
FAR: 90 (7/20/16) - AND DONE FOREVER!!!!!July 12, 2016 at 2:24 pm #784919AnonymousInactivejmc0434,
Price On Bond: PV of amount + PV of interest
Stated rate ONLY used to calculate Cash pay for interest per year = 5%, 100 * 5% = 5
Price (always use Market Rate) = (100 * 0.68058) + (5 * 3.99271) = 88022 on Jan.1
JE during Year 1:
Dr. Interest Expense (88022 * 8%) = 7042
Dr. Cash Paid (100 * 5%) 5000
Dr. Amortized Disc (Net) 2042Balance at 12.31.x1
Short cut: 2042 + 88022 = 90064Hope this help.
July 12, 2016 at 2:26 pm #784920Titleistg0lferParticipant@DLu Good luck today! You will kill it!
REG: 84 (10/5/15)
AUD: 83 (11/23/15)
BEC: 77 (2/27/16) - The bubble sucks
FAR: 90 (7/20/16) - AND DONE FOREVER!!!!!July 12, 2016 at 2:36 pm #784921jmc0434Participant@Titleistg0lfer – Thank you!
Now I know what I was missing! Of course my error was in step one… I was only calculating the PV of Outstanding Debt and not including the PV of the payments.
BEC - 79
AUD - 89
REG - 80
FAR - 7/19/16July 12, 2016 at 2:37 pm #784922jmc0434Participant@DLu – Thank you and good luck today!! Knock it out!! 🙂
BEC - 79
AUD - 89
REG - 80
FAR - 7/19/16July 12, 2016 at 3:45 pm #784923AnonymousInactivethebigguy1992, this is what I got:
Taxable income for current year $120,000
Deferred income tax liability, beginning of year 50,000
Deferred income tax liability, end of year 55,000
Deferred income tax asset, beginning of year 10,000
Deferred income tax asset, end of year 16,000
Current and future years’ tax rate 35%JE:
Dr. Tax Exp (net) 41
Dr. DTA 6
Cr. DTL 5
Cr. Tax Liab (Income * tax rate) 120 * .35 = 42Thank you all, I will grab all the luck I can.
Let's do this.
July 12, 2016 at 10:19 pm #784924OnedayParticipantjmc0434
Thank you very much. Your explanation is amazing!
July 13, 2016 at 1:50 am #784925KJParticipantI always mess up on these first, second or three forward contracts. I thought the answer would be B. Can someone explain why it is C?
On December 12, 20X1, Imp Co. entered into three forward exchange contracts, each to purchase 100,000 francs in 90 days. The relevant exchange rates are as follows:
Forward Rate
Spot Rate (for March 12, 20X2)
——— ——————–
December 12, 20X1 $.88 $.90
December 31, 20X1 .98 .93Imp entered into the second forward contract to hedge a commitment to purchase equipment being manufactured to Imp's specifications. At December 31, 20X1, what amount of net foreign currency transaction gain should Imp include in income from this forward contract?
A.
$0B.
$3,000$5,000
D.
$10,000"Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler" - Albert EinsteinFAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
July 13, 2016 at 1:50 am #784926KJParticipantSorry, the correct answer is A.
"Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler" - Albert EinsteinFAR - August 2016
AUD - September 2016
REG - October 2016
BEC - November 2016Remember: "Everything should be made as simple as possible, but not simpler." - Albert Einstein
July 13, 2016 at 3:23 pm #784927jmc0434ParticipantUnrealized foreign currency transaction gain are recorded in OCI.
Since the question asked “what amount of net foreign currency transaction gain should Imp include in income from this forward contract?” the answer would be $0. The gain is an unrealized foreign currency transaction gain since the forward contracts were bought on Dec. 12, Year 1 and have the option to execute in 90 days (March of Year 2). As such, this gain will be recorded in OCI as of Dec 31, Year 1.
This is a tricky question!! Just ONE word changed the whole mentality of the question. If the question instead asked “what amount would be reported in OCI as of Dec 31, Year 1?” then you would have the dollar amount answer (B. 3,000)
Hope this helps! 🙂
BEC - 79
AUD - 89
REG - 80
FAR - 7/19/16 -
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