Statute of frauds – service contracts impossible to be performed within 1 year

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  • #178284
    k1zuna
    Member

    On December 1, Gem orally contracted with Mason for Mason to manage Gem’s restaurant for one year starting the

    following January 1. They agreed that Gem would pay Mason $40,000 and that Mason would be allowed to continue

    to work for Gem if “everything worked out.” On June 1, Mason quit to take a better paying job, alleging that the

    contract violated the statute of frauds. What will be the outcome of a suit by Gem for breach of contract?

    a. Gem will win because the contract was for services not goods.

    b. Gem will lose because the contract could not be performed within one year.

    c. Gem will lose because the contract required payment of more than $500.

    d. Gem will win because the contract was executory.

    Explanation

    Choice “b” is correct. As a general rule, under the statute of frauds, a contract that cannot be performed within one

    year from the time of its making is unenforceable absent proof of its material terms in a writing signed by the party

    being sued. Here, the contract by its terms could not be performed within a year from the time it was made and Gem

    cannot prove the material terms of the contract through a writing signed by Mason. Therefore, Gem would lose its

    breach of contract action.

    ====================================================================

    Why does Becker say that the contract cannot be performed within 1 year? Doesn’t the contract explicitly say it’s for 1 year? so it doesn’t have to be in writing to be enforceable????????????

    FAR - Passed
    AUD - Passed
    BEC - Passed
    REG - 8/22/2013

Viewing 8 replies - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • #423234
    mangos
    Member

    I hate the wording of these questions too.

    A contract is required if performance can't be performed WITHIN one year.

    So I guess anything that is 1 year OR more will require a contract.

    FAR (5/07/13): 96

    #423235
    k1zuna
    Member

    mangos, what would I do without you? 🙂

    FAR - Passed
    AUD - Passed
    BEC - Passed
    REG - 8/22/2013

    #423236
    MCLKT
    Participant

    The one year requirement is as of the agreement date, not when work begins. So, it would have to be complete before 12/1 the following year.

    OR if the agreement had been for one year starting 12/1 then Gem would have won.

    A:[73]97 F:[74]85 R:86 B:[74]82
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    #423237
    k1zuna
    Member

    @MCLKT, the question didn't say when the work will end/be performed… so how do we know? I'm confusing myself

    FAR - Passed
    AUD - Passed
    BEC - Passed
    REG - 8/22/2013

    #423238

    The work will be performed “for one year starting the following January 1.”

    #423239
    Gerg, CPA
    Participant

    k1zuna, it says that the Mason would manage the restaurant for a year, starting on January 1st. So Mason's work will end on December 31st. But the agreement was on December 1st, which is when the year starts for the statute

    FAR - 1/26/2012 - PASSED (78, but Lost credit), re-do 11/27/2013 - PASSED (87)!
    AUD - EPIC FAIL, 71, 69; 68; 5/25/2013 - PASSED (85)!
    REG - 10/1/2012 - 72; 7/1/2013 - 73 UGH, 10/1/2013 - PASSED (85)!
    BEC - 2/28/2013 - PASSED (82)!
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    #423240
    k1zuna
    Member

    ok got it. Thanks guys

    FAR - Passed
    AUD - Passed
    BEC - Passed
    REG - 8/22/2013

    #423241
    Anonymous
    Inactive

    If I remember correctly from law school, the contract must be able to be completed within 1 year. Thus the contract must be able to be completed by December 1 of the next year. So, if M's employment starts one moth after the agreement was reached, by definition when he completes his contract one year later it “has to be past the one year from the previous Dec. 1st. Thus outsidethe SOL.

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