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Why do we use present value and future value for concepts such as bonds and leases, but nothing else?
What got me thinking was reviewing capital leases. In accounting for capital leases you have to include the PV of the guaranteed residual value in the lease obligation. However for fixed assets that you personally own and use, you do not use the PV of salvage value.
Essentially what qualifies something to use PV and FV versus ignoring it?
“Recipe for Success: Study while others are sleeping; work while others are loafing; prepare while others are playing; and dream while others are wishing.” -William A. Ward
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